^ Thanks you.
Again I re-read the 25 pages and come up with new doubts and clarification required from the above post.
MANDATORY AUDITING:
Assume person X starts trading(day) with a capital of 1 lakh. He has no other asset or savings or anything. All he has is this 1 lakh amount. In day trading he makes 25 lakhs profit and 26 lakhs loss. Now his net loss is 1 lakh i.e., he lost his initial investment. Now falls under mandatory auditing. Even, His survival is doubtful now, how can he afford auditing?
ADVANCE TAX:
"Advance tax is an estimate which needs to be based and paid on last years earning. Advance Tax is legally required by persons having a tax outgo greater than Rs. 10000 in a year."
Person X income was just 1 lakh. So, he got exempted from paying tax. If he earns 10 lakh this year, he doesn't need to pay advance tax.(Because, based on last years earnings, he wouldn't have earned much to fall into any tax bracket.)
DAY TRADER NEEDS TO MAINTAIN BOOKS OF ACCOUNT:
He can get ledger from his back office. From where he can get cash book. If he has to make it, (he can make it if he knows making it or else he needs to employ someone to do it.) With the mere income of 1.2Lakh how he can afford to employ someone to maintain books of account.
CALCULATING TURNOVER OF DERIVATIVES FOR AUDITING PURPOSE:
As you said, Profit/Loss is calculated after deducting STT, TAX, and other fees.
So he needs to audit each and every trade to find which one falls into profit/loss or some times no profit/loss)
(For eg: Nifty 1 lot Bought @ Rs. 2/- and Sold @ Rs.3/- (STT, tax and other Fees is Rs. 50/- for both buying and selling (assumed amount for calculation). Here its no profit or loss(Profit on trade is Rs. 50/- and fee is Rs. 50/- So, 50-50 is 0). So this trade can't be taken into account for auditing purpose. Am I right?
DOCUMENTS NEED TO BE ATTACHED ALONG WITH ITR:
You have mentioned, individual no need to attach anything but just ITR.
Do anyone else need to attach the same, if he falls into mandate auditing category or his income for a particular year is 2 crores or something???
STOCKS SOLD @ LOSS BUT NO STT PAID:
How? Without paying STT how can he sell his shares. or there were no STT some years back???
MAINTAINING TWO DEMAT ACCOUNT TO AVOID AMBIGUITY:
Assume I have one demat account. I have holdings of RELIANCE 100 shares bought @Rs.1000/-. In my DP that shares always stay with same qty and same price. Even though I do intraday trading in RELIANCE. How come ITO take FIFO method here and club my holdings with intraday trading. Even if I have two demat account he would take FIFO method and club everything.
In one of your post you have clearly explained how would assessing officer will take into account for short term and long term positions of the same scrip. But here is long/short term with intraday. Is there any possible to club long/short term with intraday??? If no, he can maintain one demat and could cause no ambiguity. Am I right?
PAGE NO. 103, POST NO. 1026:
He invested 1.4Lakh now he has only .6L how he might have to pay tax. Please explain this.
OPTION TURNOVER:
As you said, derivatives turnover is calculated by adding profit and loss (cumulative).
But, here is a quote says
"Option turnover is calculated by adding premium(buy and sold)"
I don't know where i read this. Some one wrongly written it or this is how option turnover was calculated some years back???
And your quote "F&O income comes under business income. Here option turnover is the option premium"
NOW, I am totally confused?????
DOUBTS AND CONTRADICTIONS - TAX READY RECKONER:
"Books needs to be maintained if the sale in any of the previous three years is in excess of Rs. 10,00,000"
What do you mean by sale, selling house, land or something else? For day trader, he would sell that 10 Lakh amount worth shares everyday. Please explain
STCG-"STCG on equities is 15% (over expemtion)"
In your above post you said "Tax slab for all are the same it does not matter how and in what form the income has been earned...the only thing is that the person should be an individual." (Assume X earns 10L)If that's the case over exemption i.e., 1.6L and 1 lakh savings, balance is 7.4Lakh(10-1.6-1) so his tax liability is Rs. 1,11,000/-(@15% of 7.4Lakh) not Rs. 1,26,000/-(1lakh standard savings so tax is nil, 1.6tax basic exemption, 1.6-3 @10% i.e 14k, 3-5 @20% i.e. 40k, 5-7.4 @30% i.e 72k.
Please clarify this.
Pure trader-You have said individual's tax liability is based on slab where he falls. But your other quote confuses me "A "pure" day trader is taxed at 30% flat rate"
Gift - You have posted like this, if X transfer some money to his wife as gift that will be taxed and income generated with that income will be taxed on X's head. And you have said solution and iterate that its not a fool proof as transfer money as gift to X's mother in law and ask her transfer back to his wife.
And your quote "Gifted money there is no tax if between relatives."
Clarification needed.
Again it become like an essay. I'll try and write short and precise.