Thanks a great deal, diosys. Your zeal in answering to quries of one and all must be very taxing. One sincerely appreciates your effort.
The first page of the thread initiated by you was seen before addressing you. This was done thinking that the first page was written in May 2006 and by now perhaps the matter must have been settled with clarity. This was the reason for giving an account of the circumstances under which share trading was initiated. The under current of the logic running in the mind was that trading was initiated not to make 'profit' but with a view to gaining the lost value. Acquisition of DLF shares that was surely by chance could not be classified as 'trading'. Loss of value of the shares also could not be attributed to 'trading' by the holder. Therefore, an attempt to regain the lost value should also not be treeated as trading!
It is, however, appreciated that this argument would not be acceptable to IT authorities. One has to proceed with the assumption that the author of this mail would be considered as a trader and not an investor.
Now, the issue related to calculation of PL arises. The query is proposed to be raised by taking a real time example. During the period April 01, 2009 to March 31, 2009, 1500 shares of Balrampur Chini were 'Buy', 1200 were 'Sell'. leaving a closing balance of 300 shares that were carried over to the year 2009-10.
The 'Net Qty' carried over to the year 2009-10 was 300. The average cost per share of these 300 sahares would be (Buy value of 1500 minus Sell value of 1200 shares)/Net Qty of 300. The net rate of these 300 shares worked out to Rs. 46.96.
The Trading software of India Infoline indicated the closing price of the shares as Rs. 52.45. Needless to say, both the figures of Rs. 46.96 and Rs. 52.45 would have to be adjusted after taking into account the brokerage and taxes.
Now, one method to work out the PL for 2008-09 can be as under:
(A) PL = (Value of the OB quantity - Buy cost of 1500 shares + Sell value of 1200 shares - Value of the balance quantity)
It may be noted that, in this case, the opening balance of this scrip for the year 2008-09 was 'nil'.
Another method to work out the PL for 2008-09 could be:
(B) PL = Sell value of 1200 shares, to be based on Average Sell Rate - Buy value of 1200 shares, again based on Average Buy rate deduced from the Buy value of 1500 shares on pro-rata basis.
The author would be grateful to know from you which of the two methods (A) or (B) would be correct?
Further, the question that arises is whether the value of the OB Qty of 300 would be worked out from Rs. 44.96 or Rs. 52.45 for calculating the PL for 2009-10? (C)
Your opinion on (C) would also be valuable.
Thanks again in anticipation for your indulgence.
Hugs Rajen
The first page of the thread initiated by you was seen before addressing you. This was done thinking that the first page was written in May 2006 and by now perhaps the matter must have been settled with clarity. This was the reason for giving an account of the circumstances under which share trading was initiated. The under current of the logic running in the mind was that trading was initiated not to make 'profit' but with a view to gaining the lost value. Acquisition of DLF shares that was surely by chance could not be classified as 'trading'. Loss of value of the shares also could not be attributed to 'trading' by the holder. Therefore, an attempt to regain the lost value should also not be treeated as trading!
It is, however, appreciated that this argument would not be acceptable to IT authorities. One has to proceed with the assumption that the author of this mail would be considered as a trader and not an investor.
Now, the issue related to calculation of PL arises. The query is proposed to be raised by taking a real time example. During the period April 01, 2009 to March 31, 2009, 1500 shares of Balrampur Chini were 'Buy', 1200 were 'Sell'. leaving a closing balance of 300 shares that were carried over to the year 2009-10.
The 'Net Qty' carried over to the year 2009-10 was 300. The average cost per share of these 300 sahares would be (Buy value of 1500 minus Sell value of 1200 shares)/Net Qty of 300. The net rate of these 300 shares worked out to Rs. 46.96.
The Trading software of India Infoline indicated the closing price of the shares as Rs. 52.45. Needless to say, both the figures of Rs. 46.96 and Rs. 52.45 would have to be adjusted after taking into account the brokerage and taxes.
Now, one method to work out the PL for 2008-09 can be as under:
(A) PL = (Value of the OB quantity - Buy cost of 1500 shares + Sell value of 1200 shares - Value of the balance quantity)
It may be noted that, in this case, the opening balance of this scrip for the year 2008-09 was 'nil'.
Another method to work out the PL for 2008-09 could be:
(B) PL = Sell value of 1200 shares, to be based on Average Sell Rate - Buy value of 1200 shares, again based on Average Buy rate deduced from the Buy value of 1500 shares on pro-rata basis.
The author would be grateful to know from you which of the two methods (A) or (B) would be correct?
Further, the question that arises is whether the value of the OB Qty of 300 would be worked out from Rs. 44.96 or Rs. 52.45 for calculating the PL for 2009-10? (C)
Your opinion on (C) would also be valuable.
Thanks again in anticipation for your indulgence.
Hugs Rajen
The situation since then has remained the same....No clarity has emerged and I am very very much SURE THAT NONE WOULD ARISE ALSO !!!
Anyways...Pertaining to your question of recovering the PL then that would not stand any chance in court of law or with IT...which you have correctly pointed out...Hence keep that out of your mind...
Coming to calculations...
I am very much sure that TT of IIFL shows value on weighted avg value method WHICH IS NOT RECOGNIZED IN IT...IT only recognizes FIFO method....that is First In and first Out...So you need to value the closing stock at FIFO and not weighted....
Plus the correct method would be very simple....
Actual Opening Cost + Actual Purchase Cost - Actual Sales Value - Closing Stock value based on FIFO (this would carry over as Op stock next year)...