General Trading Chat

Hey

What I meant was that I don't judge the Indian vs FTSE correlation based on absolute % change or levels. E.g. as it was pointed out that FTSE was up 1.2% vs Nifty 0.3%. You have to look how you are measuring these %s. FTSE was up from 5950 (fri close), which it hit way after Nifty closed. FTSE was close to 6000 when Nifty closed on Friday.

Now, FTSE futures (not Index) started trading in Japan early morning today. They were already up 5960 from 5910 (~0.8%) between 4:30 AM - 9:30AM IST, and by the time Nifty closed, additional upmove was just 30 odd points. So, although FTSE Index opened strong (>1%), the actual new movement after opening was just 30 points (6000 to 6030 on Index and 5960 to 5990 on futures), as the previous 50 was already captured in futures.

PS: Please don't follow it without understanding the PA. I mainly use PA for trading, FTSE/SPX is just to help in decision making (like which support or resistance will likely hold, whether a move is fake or real etc). I find Nifty too volatile as of now, maybe with experience I will become better.
Thanks a lot Arsh.:)
 

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lemondew

Well-Known Member
I also so yesterdays FII figures it showed sell of 600 odd crores. When dow/euro markets are up and we arent just about +ve I was guessing this one

Sirji, time of measurement is also important. FTSE fell from 6000 to 5950 on Fri when Indian markets were closed. Today FTSE opened above 6000 and again fell from 6035. So, in effect the % change in NS and FTSE is almost similar from those levels.

That's why I said that absolute prices get priced in, I am more interested in the candlestick pattern.
 

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