Great SMA, EMA & MACD System

[sub2501]

Many many thanks to u for the AFL and guidance and wishes for the holi,

"I think u've remember abt Arjuna- when Drona was teaching archery to all his students and Arjuna was the only who could see the bird's (hanged on the tree) eye and rest of all saw the bird on the tree"

this makes the difference betn u & me,
- i wish that by god's grace in future i could have knowledge & talent like u.

thanks
subha.

 

[jjravi]

linkon7 Thanks for the afl can you please add code to it so we can use it for exploration (getting buy and sell )

 

[supremo]

this is really a simple and basic TA but effective one... :thumb:

 

[observer]

Sorry for a preliminary question, is 1pip = 1 index point and 1 pip = 1 rupee?

Thanks

 

[sub2501]

HI,
A currency pair such as EUR/USD, for example, represents a euro and U.S. dollar currency pair. The first currency is the base currency and the second currency is the quote currency. So, to buy EUR/USD at 1.1200 on a trade for 100,000 currency units, you would need to pay US$112,000 (100,000 * 1.12) for 100,000 euros.

Pips relate to the smallest price movement any exchange rate can make. Because currencies are usually quoted to four decimal places, the smallest change in a currency pair would be in the last digit. This would make one pip equal to 1/100th of a percent, or one basis point. For example, if the currency price we quoted earlier changed from 1.1200 to 1.1205, this would be a change of five pips.

To get the value of one pip in a currency pair, an investor has to divide one pip in decimal form (i.e. 0.0001) by the current exchange rate, and then multiply it by the notional amount of the trade.

Keeping with our earlier example for the EUR/USD currency pair, the value of one pip is 8.93 euros ((0.0001/1.1200) * 100,000). To convert the value of the pip to U.S. dollars, just multiply the value of the pip by the exchange rate, so the value in U.S. dollars is $10 (8.93 * 1.12). The value of one pip is always different between currency pairs because there are differences between the exchange rates of different currencies. A phenomenon does occur when the U.S. dollar is quoted as the quote currency. When this is the case, for a notional amount of 100,000 currency units, the value of the pip is always equal to US$10.

Hope this will clarify ur doubts.

 

[Nehal_s143]

During extreme range obund market ema keep crossing and keep generating fake buy and sell signals, which will take out all the stop loss.

how to avoid fake signals in range boudn market or how to identify range bound markets

 

[d_s_ramesh]

When averages get coiled between price it is a range bound market and when they are parallel or opened out it is a trending market.

On a trend following system money management and position sizing can still keep you afloat after many whipsaw trades in a range bound market. We are at present facing such a market on the intraday trades.

 

[columbus]

Sorry for a preliminary question, is 1pip = 1 index point and 1 pip = 1 rupee?

Thanks

From my old posts:


Understanding Pips In The Forex Market

To forex traders, everything revolves around pips.

"I'm up 35 pips for the day."

"I made a 127 pip profit on my last trade."

That's great, but what's a pip?

Pip is short for "percentage in point" and you may sometimes hear people refer to pips as points.

Put simply, a pip is the smallest unit of price for a currency. It's the last decimal point in exchange rates or currency pairs.

For most currencies its 0.0001. So if you bought USD/CHF 1.2475 and sold at 1.2489 you made 14 pips.

One common exception is USD/JPY. In this currency pair there are only two decimal places so a pip is equal to 0.01.

 

[swapon_uiu]

thanks for providing code.