I put combined premium because ATM is different at different circumstances. I ignore 50 multiples because they have less liquidity.
Nifty at 8080. ATM = 8100 CE is less than
Nifty at 8100. ATM = 8100 CE is more
But 8100 CE + PE premium should be same other factors same.
Again nifty 7000 Combined premium = 70 = 1 % of underlying is same
at nifty at 8000 combined premium = 80 = 1% of underlying again
So i used percentage of underlying rather than prices.
I have taken into account option pricing is based on
1. Underlying price
2. Choice of strike(ATM/ITM/ OTM)
3. Theta( time for expiry)
4. Vega(IV)
Assumptions: gamma doesnt effect much. Interest rates/risk free rates is more or less same for the year.
This is a good idea.
Let me simplify the same idea further down.
Instead of combined premium of CE & PE, for easy understanding let us take only premium of ATM CE of this expiry and compare the price with ATM CE of previous expiry ( with same no of days to expiry). This will give us idea of whether CE of this expiry is cheaper or costly than previous expiry. Right ?
To simply is further down, the same can be achieved by tracking the CE IV's instead of CE Prices. That's is by comparing the ATM CE strike IV of current expiry to ATM CE strike IV of previous expiry ( with same no of days to expiry). But we need to have captured IV data for this.
Note- Some factors like, Future spread difference will hinder the study, but overall it can be achieved.